Reducible and Irreducible polynomials are confusing me











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The definition claims that a polynomial in a field of positive degree is a reducible polynomial when it can be written as the product of 2 polynomials in the field with positive degrees. Other wise it is irreducible.



So if a polynomial $f(x)$ can be written as the product of say $41(x^2 + x)$, is that considered not reducible because 41 is really $41x^0$, and 0 isn't technically positive, but by the definition of a polynomial in a field it is a polynomial if $a_n$ isn't 0 for the highest degree $n$ where $n geq 0$.



So would the example of the polynomial example I gave be reducible or irreducible?










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    The definition claims that a polynomial in a field of positive degree is a reducible polynomial when it can be written as the product of 2 polynomials in the field with positive degrees. Other wise it is irreducible.



    So if a polynomial $f(x)$ can be written as the product of say $41(x^2 + x)$, is that considered not reducible because 41 is really $41x^0$, and 0 isn't technically positive, but by the definition of a polynomial in a field it is a polynomial if $a_n$ isn't 0 for the highest degree $n$ where $n geq 0$.



    So would the example of the polynomial example I gave be reducible or irreducible?










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      up vote
      3
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      3
      down vote

      favorite











      The definition claims that a polynomial in a field of positive degree is a reducible polynomial when it can be written as the product of 2 polynomials in the field with positive degrees. Other wise it is irreducible.



      So if a polynomial $f(x)$ can be written as the product of say $41(x^2 + x)$, is that considered not reducible because 41 is really $41x^0$, and 0 isn't technically positive, but by the definition of a polynomial in a field it is a polynomial if $a_n$ isn't 0 for the highest degree $n$ where $n geq 0$.



      So would the example of the polynomial example I gave be reducible or irreducible?










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      The definition claims that a polynomial in a field of positive degree is a reducible polynomial when it can be written as the product of 2 polynomials in the field with positive degrees. Other wise it is irreducible.



      So if a polynomial $f(x)$ can be written as the product of say $41(x^2 + x)$, is that considered not reducible because 41 is really $41x^0$, and 0 isn't technically positive, but by the definition of a polynomial in a field it is a polynomial if $a_n$ isn't 0 for the highest degree $n$ where $n geq 0$.



      So would the example of the polynomial example I gave be reducible or irreducible?







      linear-algebra






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      asked 1 hour ago









      ming

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          This particular example would be reducible, but not because of the reason you give -- it would be because you could write it as $41x(x+1)$. Note that $0$ is not positive, so the factorization you give is not a product of two polynomials with positive degree ($41$ is a polynomial of degree $0$).






          share|cite|improve this answer

















          • 2




            So if it was $41(x + 1)$ it would be irreducible right? Because 41 cannot be written with a degree of anything greater than 0, and 0 is not positive?
            – ming
            1 hour ago












          • Correct, $41x + 41$ is irreducible (assuming you are working over $mathbb{Z}[x]$).
            – platty
            1 hour ago










          • It is reducible in Z[x] as 41 is not a unit.
            – Hans
            9 mins ago










          • I think the definition of irreducible as a polynomial requires that both factors be non-constant; I'm not sure why I added that stipulation. Otherwise you run into uniqueness issues with something like $4x+4$.
            – platty
            4 mins ago


















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          Definition : Given an integral domain $R$, a non-zero non-unit element $r in R$ is said to be irreducible if it cannot be written as a product of non-units i.e. whenever it is written as a product of two elements, at least one of them is a unit in $R$.




          For polynomials, this becomes :




          Definition : Given an integral domain $R$, the ring $R[X]$ also is an integral domain, and $f$ is an irreducible polynomial over $R$ if it is an irreducible element of $R[X]$.




          So, it is that simple. Let us take some examples to clarify.




          • The polynomial $f(x) = x$ is irreducible over any ring, since if $a(x)b(x) =x$, then WLOG $a$ must be a constant polynomial with the constant being a unit(use the rules for multiplication of polynomials), so $a$ is a unit in $R[X]$, hence $x$ is irreducible.


          • The polynomial $f(x) = 2x+2$ is irreducible over $mathbb R[X]$. This is because if $a(x)b(x)$ divides $2(x+1)$ then at least one of $a(x)$ or $b(x)$ is a constant polynomial, but every constant polynomial is a unit in $mathbb R$. However, this polynomial is reducible over $mathbb Z[X]$, since here, $2(x+1)$ counts as a non-unit factorization, because $2$ is not a unit.



          Therefore, reducibility depends on "over which ring/field"? For example, $41 = 41x^0$ is a constant polynomial, but it isn't a unit in $mathbb Z[X]$, while it is one in $mathbb R[X]$. So, a polynomial like $41(x+1)$ is irreducible over the latter but not over the former.





          While working over a field, it turns out that the set of units of $F[X]$ is equal to the non-zero constant polynomials. Therefore, any polynomial is irreducible in $F[X]$ if and only if it can be written as the product of two non-constant polynomials. Things will change for a ring which is not a field, since some non-constant polynomials may possibly not be units.



          Also, note that $41(x^2+x)$ is reducible in every field, since it can be written as $(41 x) times (x+1)$ which is the product of two non-constant polynomials, which are always non-units by the fact that the degree is multiplicative.






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            A polynomial $f(x)$ is irreducible if $f(x)=g(x)h(x)$ with $deg(g(x)) ge 1$, and $deg(h(x)) ge 1$






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            • Do you mean reducible? I don't see how your answer helps as OP has clearly mentioned the definition.
              – Thomas Shelby
              41 mins ago











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            3 Answers
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            up vote
            9
            down vote













            This particular example would be reducible, but not because of the reason you give -- it would be because you could write it as $41x(x+1)$. Note that $0$ is not positive, so the factorization you give is not a product of two polynomials with positive degree ($41$ is a polynomial of degree $0$).






            share|cite|improve this answer

















            • 2




              So if it was $41(x + 1)$ it would be irreducible right? Because 41 cannot be written with a degree of anything greater than 0, and 0 is not positive?
              – ming
              1 hour ago












            • Correct, $41x + 41$ is irreducible (assuming you are working over $mathbb{Z}[x]$).
              – platty
              1 hour ago










            • It is reducible in Z[x] as 41 is not a unit.
              – Hans
              9 mins ago










            • I think the definition of irreducible as a polynomial requires that both factors be non-constant; I'm not sure why I added that stipulation. Otherwise you run into uniqueness issues with something like $4x+4$.
              – platty
              4 mins ago















            up vote
            9
            down vote













            This particular example would be reducible, but not because of the reason you give -- it would be because you could write it as $41x(x+1)$. Note that $0$ is not positive, so the factorization you give is not a product of two polynomials with positive degree ($41$ is a polynomial of degree $0$).






            share|cite|improve this answer

















            • 2




              So if it was $41(x + 1)$ it would be irreducible right? Because 41 cannot be written with a degree of anything greater than 0, and 0 is not positive?
              – ming
              1 hour ago












            • Correct, $41x + 41$ is irreducible (assuming you are working over $mathbb{Z}[x]$).
              – platty
              1 hour ago










            • It is reducible in Z[x] as 41 is not a unit.
              – Hans
              9 mins ago










            • I think the definition of irreducible as a polynomial requires that both factors be non-constant; I'm not sure why I added that stipulation. Otherwise you run into uniqueness issues with something like $4x+4$.
              – platty
              4 mins ago













            up vote
            9
            down vote










            up vote
            9
            down vote









            This particular example would be reducible, but not because of the reason you give -- it would be because you could write it as $41x(x+1)$. Note that $0$ is not positive, so the factorization you give is not a product of two polynomials with positive degree ($41$ is a polynomial of degree $0$).






            share|cite|improve this answer












            This particular example would be reducible, but not because of the reason you give -- it would be because you could write it as $41x(x+1)$. Note that $0$ is not positive, so the factorization you give is not a product of two polynomials with positive degree ($41$ is a polynomial of degree $0$).







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered 1 hour ago









            platty

            1,877211




            1,877211








            • 2




              So if it was $41(x + 1)$ it would be irreducible right? Because 41 cannot be written with a degree of anything greater than 0, and 0 is not positive?
              – ming
              1 hour ago












            • Correct, $41x + 41$ is irreducible (assuming you are working over $mathbb{Z}[x]$).
              – platty
              1 hour ago










            • It is reducible in Z[x] as 41 is not a unit.
              – Hans
              9 mins ago










            • I think the definition of irreducible as a polynomial requires that both factors be non-constant; I'm not sure why I added that stipulation. Otherwise you run into uniqueness issues with something like $4x+4$.
              – platty
              4 mins ago














            • 2




              So if it was $41(x + 1)$ it would be irreducible right? Because 41 cannot be written with a degree of anything greater than 0, and 0 is not positive?
              – ming
              1 hour ago












            • Correct, $41x + 41$ is irreducible (assuming you are working over $mathbb{Z}[x]$).
              – platty
              1 hour ago










            • It is reducible in Z[x] as 41 is not a unit.
              – Hans
              9 mins ago










            • I think the definition of irreducible as a polynomial requires that both factors be non-constant; I'm not sure why I added that stipulation. Otherwise you run into uniqueness issues with something like $4x+4$.
              – platty
              4 mins ago








            2




            2




            So if it was $41(x + 1)$ it would be irreducible right? Because 41 cannot be written with a degree of anything greater than 0, and 0 is not positive?
            – ming
            1 hour ago






            So if it was $41(x + 1)$ it would be irreducible right? Because 41 cannot be written with a degree of anything greater than 0, and 0 is not positive?
            – ming
            1 hour ago














            Correct, $41x + 41$ is irreducible (assuming you are working over $mathbb{Z}[x]$).
            – platty
            1 hour ago




            Correct, $41x + 41$ is irreducible (assuming you are working over $mathbb{Z}[x]$).
            – platty
            1 hour ago












            It is reducible in Z[x] as 41 is not a unit.
            – Hans
            9 mins ago




            It is reducible in Z[x] as 41 is not a unit.
            – Hans
            9 mins ago












            I think the definition of irreducible as a polynomial requires that both factors be non-constant; I'm not sure why I added that stipulation. Otherwise you run into uniqueness issues with something like $4x+4$.
            – platty
            4 mins ago




            I think the definition of irreducible as a polynomial requires that both factors be non-constant; I'm not sure why I added that stipulation. Otherwise you run into uniqueness issues with something like $4x+4$.
            – platty
            4 mins ago










            up vote
            3
            down vote














            Definition : Given an integral domain $R$, a non-zero non-unit element $r in R$ is said to be irreducible if it cannot be written as a product of non-units i.e. whenever it is written as a product of two elements, at least one of them is a unit in $R$.




            For polynomials, this becomes :




            Definition : Given an integral domain $R$, the ring $R[X]$ also is an integral domain, and $f$ is an irreducible polynomial over $R$ if it is an irreducible element of $R[X]$.




            So, it is that simple. Let us take some examples to clarify.




            • The polynomial $f(x) = x$ is irreducible over any ring, since if $a(x)b(x) =x$, then WLOG $a$ must be a constant polynomial with the constant being a unit(use the rules for multiplication of polynomials), so $a$ is a unit in $R[X]$, hence $x$ is irreducible.


            • The polynomial $f(x) = 2x+2$ is irreducible over $mathbb R[X]$. This is because if $a(x)b(x)$ divides $2(x+1)$ then at least one of $a(x)$ or $b(x)$ is a constant polynomial, but every constant polynomial is a unit in $mathbb R$. However, this polynomial is reducible over $mathbb Z[X]$, since here, $2(x+1)$ counts as a non-unit factorization, because $2$ is not a unit.



            Therefore, reducibility depends on "over which ring/field"? For example, $41 = 41x^0$ is a constant polynomial, but it isn't a unit in $mathbb Z[X]$, while it is one in $mathbb R[X]$. So, a polynomial like $41(x+1)$ is irreducible over the latter but not over the former.





            While working over a field, it turns out that the set of units of $F[X]$ is equal to the non-zero constant polynomials. Therefore, any polynomial is irreducible in $F[X]$ if and only if it can be written as the product of two non-constant polynomials. Things will change for a ring which is not a field, since some non-constant polynomials may possibly not be units.



            Also, note that $41(x^2+x)$ is reducible in every field, since it can be written as $(41 x) times (x+1)$ which is the product of two non-constant polynomials, which are always non-units by the fact that the degree is multiplicative.






            share|cite|improve this answer

























              up vote
              3
              down vote














              Definition : Given an integral domain $R$, a non-zero non-unit element $r in R$ is said to be irreducible if it cannot be written as a product of non-units i.e. whenever it is written as a product of two elements, at least one of them is a unit in $R$.




              For polynomials, this becomes :




              Definition : Given an integral domain $R$, the ring $R[X]$ also is an integral domain, and $f$ is an irreducible polynomial over $R$ if it is an irreducible element of $R[X]$.




              So, it is that simple. Let us take some examples to clarify.




              • The polynomial $f(x) = x$ is irreducible over any ring, since if $a(x)b(x) =x$, then WLOG $a$ must be a constant polynomial with the constant being a unit(use the rules for multiplication of polynomials), so $a$ is a unit in $R[X]$, hence $x$ is irreducible.


              • The polynomial $f(x) = 2x+2$ is irreducible over $mathbb R[X]$. This is because if $a(x)b(x)$ divides $2(x+1)$ then at least one of $a(x)$ or $b(x)$ is a constant polynomial, but every constant polynomial is a unit in $mathbb R$. However, this polynomial is reducible over $mathbb Z[X]$, since here, $2(x+1)$ counts as a non-unit factorization, because $2$ is not a unit.



              Therefore, reducibility depends on "over which ring/field"? For example, $41 = 41x^0$ is a constant polynomial, but it isn't a unit in $mathbb Z[X]$, while it is one in $mathbb R[X]$. So, a polynomial like $41(x+1)$ is irreducible over the latter but not over the former.





              While working over a field, it turns out that the set of units of $F[X]$ is equal to the non-zero constant polynomials. Therefore, any polynomial is irreducible in $F[X]$ if and only if it can be written as the product of two non-constant polynomials. Things will change for a ring which is not a field, since some non-constant polynomials may possibly not be units.



              Also, note that $41(x^2+x)$ is reducible in every field, since it can be written as $(41 x) times (x+1)$ which is the product of two non-constant polynomials, which are always non-units by the fact that the degree is multiplicative.






              share|cite|improve this answer























                up vote
                3
                down vote










                up vote
                3
                down vote










                Definition : Given an integral domain $R$, a non-zero non-unit element $r in R$ is said to be irreducible if it cannot be written as a product of non-units i.e. whenever it is written as a product of two elements, at least one of them is a unit in $R$.




                For polynomials, this becomes :




                Definition : Given an integral domain $R$, the ring $R[X]$ also is an integral domain, and $f$ is an irreducible polynomial over $R$ if it is an irreducible element of $R[X]$.




                So, it is that simple. Let us take some examples to clarify.




                • The polynomial $f(x) = x$ is irreducible over any ring, since if $a(x)b(x) =x$, then WLOG $a$ must be a constant polynomial with the constant being a unit(use the rules for multiplication of polynomials), so $a$ is a unit in $R[X]$, hence $x$ is irreducible.


                • The polynomial $f(x) = 2x+2$ is irreducible over $mathbb R[X]$. This is because if $a(x)b(x)$ divides $2(x+1)$ then at least one of $a(x)$ or $b(x)$ is a constant polynomial, but every constant polynomial is a unit in $mathbb R$. However, this polynomial is reducible over $mathbb Z[X]$, since here, $2(x+1)$ counts as a non-unit factorization, because $2$ is not a unit.



                Therefore, reducibility depends on "over which ring/field"? For example, $41 = 41x^0$ is a constant polynomial, but it isn't a unit in $mathbb Z[X]$, while it is one in $mathbb R[X]$. So, a polynomial like $41(x+1)$ is irreducible over the latter but not over the former.





                While working over a field, it turns out that the set of units of $F[X]$ is equal to the non-zero constant polynomials. Therefore, any polynomial is irreducible in $F[X]$ if and only if it can be written as the product of two non-constant polynomials. Things will change for a ring which is not a field, since some non-constant polynomials may possibly not be units.



                Also, note that $41(x^2+x)$ is reducible in every field, since it can be written as $(41 x) times (x+1)$ which is the product of two non-constant polynomials, which are always non-units by the fact that the degree is multiplicative.






                share|cite|improve this answer













                Definition : Given an integral domain $R$, a non-zero non-unit element $r in R$ is said to be irreducible if it cannot be written as a product of non-units i.e. whenever it is written as a product of two elements, at least one of them is a unit in $R$.




                For polynomials, this becomes :




                Definition : Given an integral domain $R$, the ring $R[X]$ also is an integral domain, and $f$ is an irreducible polynomial over $R$ if it is an irreducible element of $R[X]$.




                So, it is that simple. Let us take some examples to clarify.




                • The polynomial $f(x) = x$ is irreducible over any ring, since if $a(x)b(x) =x$, then WLOG $a$ must be a constant polynomial with the constant being a unit(use the rules for multiplication of polynomials), so $a$ is a unit in $R[X]$, hence $x$ is irreducible.


                • The polynomial $f(x) = 2x+2$ is irreducible over $mathbb R[X]$. This is because if $a(x)b(x)$ divides $2(x+1)$ then at least one of $a(x)$ or $b(x)$ is a constant polynomial, but every constant polynomial is a unit in $mathbb R$. However, this polynomial is reducible over $mathbb Z[X]$, since here, $2(x+1)$ counts as a non-unit factorization, because $2$ is not a unit.



                Therefore, reducibility depends on "over which ring/field"? For example, $41 = 41x^0$ is a constant polynomial, but it isn't a unit in $mathbb Z[X]$, while it is one in $mathbb R[X]$. So, a polynomial like $41(x+1)$ is irreducible over the latter but not over the former.





                While working over a field, it turns out that the set of units of $F[X]$ is equal to the non-zero constant polynomials. Therefore, any polynomial is irreducible in $F[X]$ if and only if it can be written as the product of two non-constant polynomials. Things will change for a ring which is not a field, since some non-constant polynomials may possibly not be units.



                Also, note that $41(x^2+x)$ is reducible in every field, since it can be written as $(41 x) times (x+1)$ which is the product of two non-constant polynomials, which are always non-units by the fact that the degree is multiplicative.







                share|cite|improve this answer












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                answered 1 hour ago









                астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг

                36.6k33376




                36.6k33376






















                    up vote
                    -1
                    down vote













                    A polynomial $f(x)$ is irreducible if $f(x)=g(x)h(x)$ with $deg(g(x)) ge 1$, and $deg(h(x)) ge 1$






                    share|cite|improve this answer





















                    • Do you mean reducible? I don't see how your answer helps as OP has clearly mentioned the definition.
                      – Thomas Shelby
                      41 mins ago















                    up vote
                    -1
                    down vote













                    A polynomial $f(x)$ is irreducible if $f(x)=g(x)h(x)$ with $deg(g(x)) ge 1$, and $deg(h(x)) ge 1$






                    share|cite|improve this answer





















                    • Do you mean reducible? I don't see how your answer helps as OP has clearly mentioned the definition.
                      – Thomas Shelby
                      41 mins ago













                    up vote
                    -1
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    -1
                    down vote









                    A polynomial $f(x)$ is irreducible if $f(x)=g(x)h(x)$ with $deg(g(x)) ge 1$, and $deg(h(x)) ge 1$






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    A polynomial $f(x)$ is irreducible if $f(x)=g(x)h(x)$ with $deg(g(x)) ge 1$, and $deg(h(x)) ge 1$







                    share|cite|improve this answer












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                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered 50 mins ago









                    Fareed AF

                    35411




                    35411












                    • Do you mean reducible? I don't see how your answer helps as OP has clearly mentioned the definition.
                      – Thomas Shelby
                      41 mins ago


















                    • Do you mean reducible? I don't see how your answer helps as OP has clearly mentioned the definition.
                      – Thomas Shelby
                      41 mins ago
















                    Do you mean reducible? I don't see how your answer helps as OP has clearly mentioned the definition.
                    – Thomas Shelby
                    41 mins ago




                    Do you mean reducible? I don't see how your answer helps as OP has clearly mentioned the definition.
                    – Thomas Shelby
                    41 mins ago


















                     

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