Why did Kant, Hegel, and Adorno leave some words and phrases in the Greek alphabet?
I know this mostly from continental philosophers, like Hegel, Adorno or Kant: they use the greek alphabet when writing ancient terminology like ergon, telos or megalopsychos, while MacIntyre for example does not. He simply writes it like I just did.
What was the reason of the former philosophers not to translate the terminology into latin alphabet?
kant hegel adorno
edited 2 hours ago
virmaior
25.1k33995
asked 2 hours ago
LeBergLeBerg
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LeBerg is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
add a comment |
I know this mostly from continental philosophers, like Hegel, Adorno or Kant: they use the greek alphabet when writing ancient terminology like ergon, telos or megalopsychos, while MacIntyre for example does not. He simply writes it like I just did.
What was the reason of the former philosophers not to translate the terminology into latin alphabet?
kant hegel adorno
edited 2 hours ago
virmaior
25.1k33995
asked 2 hours ago
LeBergLeBerg
161
New contributor
LeBerg is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
1
Probably because learning proper Greek was part of the curriculum for them. It's likely that Hegel and Kant at least probably read the Greek philosophers in the original language. Adorno was influenced by Hegel.
– Bread
2 hours ago
1
Because the origin of Western philosophy was Ancient Greek, and thus many philosophical concepts originated from Ancient Greek Phil. Obviously, up to last Century, most Western philosophers was trained in Ancient classical culture, Mastering Ancient Greek as well as Latin.
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
2 hours ago
My suspicion is that this is primarily due to different typographical conventions between German and English.
– ig0774
55 mins ago
add a comment |
I know this mostly from continental philosophers, like Hegel, Adorno or Kant: they use the greek alphabet when writing ancient terminology like ergon, telos or megalopsychos, while MacIntyre for example does not. He simply writes it like I just did.
What was the reason of the former philosophers not to translate the terminology into latin alphabet?
kant hegel adorno
edited 2 hours ago
virmaior
25.1k33995
asked 2 hours ago
LeBergLeBerg
161
New contributor
LeBerg is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
I know this mostly from continental philosophers, like Hegel, Adorno or Kant: they use the greek alphabet when writing ancient terminology like ergon, telos or megalopsychos, while MacIntyre for example does not. He simply writes it like I just did.
What was the reason of the former philosophers not to translate the terminology into latin alphabet?
kant hegel adorno
kant hegel adorno
edited 2 hours ago
virmaior
25.1k33995
asked 2 hours ago
LeBergLeBerg
161
New contributor
LeBerg is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
edited 2 hours ago
virmaior
25.1k33995
asked 2 hours ago
LeBergLeBerg
161
New contributor
LeBerg is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
edited 2 hours ago
virmaior
25.1k33995
edited 2 hours ago
virmaior
25.1k33995
edited 2 hours ago
virmaior
25.1k33995
25.1k33995
asked 2 hours ago
LeBergLeBerg
161
New contributor
LeBerg is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 2 hours ago
LeBergLeBerg
161
asked 2 hours ago
LeBergLeBerg
161
161
New contributor
LeBerg is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
New contributor
LeBerg is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
LeBerg is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
1
Probably because learning proper Greek was part of the curriculum for them. It's likely that Hegel and Kant at least probably read the Greek philosophers in the original language. Adorno was influenced by Hegel.
– Bread
2 hours ago
1
Because the origin of Western philosophy was Ancient Greek, and thus many philosophical concepts originated from Ancient Greek Phil. Obviously, up to last Century, most Western philosophers was trained in Ancient classical culture, Mastering Ancient Greek as well as Latin.
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
2 hours ago
My suspicion is that this is primarily due to different typographical conventions between German and English.
– ig0774
55 mins ago
add a comment |
1
Probably because learning proper Greek was part of the curriculum for them. It's likely that Hegel and Kant at least probably read the Greek philosophers in the original language. Adorno was influenced by Hegel.
– Bread
2 hours ago
1
Because the origin of Western philosophy was Ancient Greek, and thus many philosophical concepts originated from Ancient Greek Phil. Obviously, up to last Century, most Western philosophers was trained in Ancient classical culture, Mastering Ancient Greek as well as Latin.
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
2 hours ago
My suspicion is that this is primarily due to different typographical conventions between German and English.
– ig0774
55 mins ago
1
1
Probably because learning proper Greek was part of the curriculum for them. It's likely that Hegel and Kant at least probably read the Greek philosophers in the original language. Adorno was influenced by Hegel.
– Bread
2 hours ago
Probably because learning proper Greek was part of the curriculum for them. It's likely that Hegel and Kant at least probably read the Greek philosophers in the original language. Adorno was influenced by Hegel.
– Bread
2 hours ago
1
1
Because the origin of Western philosophy was Ancient Greek, and thus many philosophical concepts originated from Ancient Greek Phil. Obviously, up to last Century, most Western philosophers was trained in Ancient classical culture, Mastering Ancient Greek as well as Latin.
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
2 hours ago
Because the origin of Western philosophy was Ancient Greek, and thus many philosophical concepts originated from Ancient Greek Phil. Obviously, up to last Century, most Western philosophers was trained in Ancient classical culture, Mastering Ancient Greek as well as Latin.
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
2 hours ago
My suspicion is that this is primarily due to different typographical conventions between German and English.
– ig0774
55 mins ago
My suspicion is that this is primarily due to different typographical conventions between German and English.
– ig0774
55 mins ago
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
Alasdair MacIntyre is a 20th/21st century philosopher writing in English.
Immanuel Kant was an 18th century philosopher writing in German. G.W.F Hegel was a 19th century philosopher writing in German. Both were trained in theology at different points during their education. For this education, they had to learn biblical Greek.
Adorno was a 20th century philosopher writing in German.
For Kant and Hegel, it was normal practice to write Greek and Latin terms in Greek and Latin respectively, because everyone who had a university education should have been able to read them at least to that level. (university education was not as common in Germany then as it is in the United States now).
Conversely, MacIntyre is a contemporary philosopher writing for an audience where very few people study Greek or could read it fluently.
I'm a bit less clear on why Adorno would do so. I think (and here I am speculating) that the educational requirements in Germany at his Gymnasium have incorporated more expectations for basic knowledge of languages including Greek than they do in the anglosphere where it is now common practice to translate all quotes and transliterate everything not written in the Roman script. For Adorno, there's a lexicon of the Greek terms he uses.
tl;dr - different eras and countries have different practices in the use of foreign terms.
answered 2 hours ago
virmaiorvirmaior
25.1k33995
Yet I'm suspicious if it really comes down to conventionalism. Merely saving some time of translation seems superifical to me, since he already used English terminology like 'materialism', which I can only explain if it has similar use as using ancient greek terminology, since it isn't properly translateable. Therefore I suspect a similar reason for using the alphabet.
– LeBerg
2 hours ago
1
If by "he" you mean Adorno, then my own hypothesis would be pompousness. Writing a Greek term in Roman letters is not "translation", it's "transliteration" and normally no meaning is lost. archai and chairos still look obviously Greek in both German and English.
– virmaior
2 hours ago
For Kant and Hegel, that was standard convention then. Everyone wrote their quotes in Latin and Greek because education was still largely (and later often) conducted in Latin and Greek in the German speaking world at the time.
– virmaior
2 hours ago
@virmaior: Considering Adorno's writing style in general, pompousness certainly is a good guess. He loved using more 'intellectual' terms and formulations (read: obscure foreign words) up to the point that even though it is 20th century philosophy, it is almost unintelligible even for native contemporary speakers. On the other hand, this is actually the level and language intellectual discourse took place in in Germany in the Golden Twenties, very much unlike MacIntyre growing up in the analytical tradition of "clear and concise" language. You just had to write and understand this style.
– Philip Klöcking♦
1 hour ago
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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Alasdair MacIntyre is a 20th/21st century philosopher writing in English.
Immanuel Kant was an 18th century philosopher writing in German. G.W.F Hegel was a 19th century philosopher writing in German. Both were trained in theology at different points during their education. For this education, they had to learn biblical Greek.
Adorno was a 20th century philosopher writing in German.
For Kant and Hegel, it was normal practice to write Greek and Latin terms in Greek and Latin respectively, because everyone who had a university education should have been able to read them at least to that level. (university education was not as common in Germany then as it is in the United States now).
Conversely, MacIntyre is a contemporary philosopher writing for an audience where very few people study Greek or could read it fluently.
I'm a bit less clear on why Adorno would do so. I think (and here I am speculating) that the educational requirements in Germany at his Gymnasium have incorporated more expectations for basic knowledge of languages including Greek than they do in the anglosphere where it is now common practice to translate all quotes and transliterate everything not written in the Roman script. For Adorno, there's a lexicon of the Greek terms he uses.
tl;dr - different eras and countries have different practices in the use of foreign terms.
answered 2 hours ago
virmaiorvirmaior
25.1k33995
Yet I'm suspicious if it really comes down to conventionalism. Merely saving some time of translation seems superifical to me, since he already used English terminology like 'materialism', which I can only explain if it has similar use as using ancient greek terminology, since it isn't properly translateable. Therefore I suspect a similar reason for using the alphabet.
– LeBerg
2 hours ago
1
If by "he" you mean Adorno, then my own hypothesis would be pompousness. Writing a Greek term in Roman letters is not "translation", it's "transliteration" and normally no meaning is lost. archai and chairos still look obviously Greek in both German and English.
– virmaior
2 hours ago
For Kant and Hegel, that was standard convention then. Everyone wrote their quotes in Latin and Greek because education was still largely (and later often) conducted in Latin and Greek in the German speaking world at the time.
– virmaior
2 hours ago
@virmaior: Considering Adorno's writing style in general, pompousness certainly is a good guess. He loved using more 'intellectual' terms and formulations (read: obscure foreign words) up to the point that even though it is 20th century philosophy, it is almost unintelligible even for native contemporary speakers. On the other hand, this is actually the level and language intellectual discourse took place in in Germany in the Golden Twenties, very much unlike MacIntyre growing up in the analytical tradition of "clear and concise" language. You just had to write and understand this style.
– Philip Klöcking♦
1 hour ago
add a comment |
Alasdair MacIntyre is a 20th/21st century philosopher writing in English.
Immanuel Kant was an 18th century philosopher writing in German. G.W.F Hegel was a 19th century philosopher writing in German. Both were trained in theology at different points during their education. For this education, they had to learn biblical Greek.
Adorno was a 20th century philosopher writing in German.
For Kant and Hegel, it was normal practice to write Greek and Latin terms in Greek and Latin respectively, because everyone who had a university education should have been able to read them at least to that level. (university education was not as common in Germany then as it is in the United States now).
Conversely, MacIntyre is a contemporary philosopher writing for an audience where very few people study Greek or could read it fluently.
I'm a bit less clear on why Adorno would do so. I think (and here I am speculating) that the educational requirements in Germany at his Gymnasium have incorporated more expectations for basic knowledge of languages including Greek than they do in the anglosphere where it is now common practice to translate all quotes and transliterate everything not written in the Roman script. For Adorno, there's a lexicon of the Greek terms he uses.
tl;dr - different eras and countries have different practices in the use of foreign terms.
answered 2 hours ago
virmaiorvirmaior
25.1k33995
Yet I'm suspicious if it really comes down to conventionalism. Merely saving some time of translation seems superifical to me, since he already used English terminology like 'materialism', which I can only explain if it has similar use as using ancient greek terminology, since it isn't properly translateable. Therefore I suspect a similar reason for using the alphabet.
– LeBerg
2 hours ago
1
If by "he" you mean Adorno, then my own hypothesis would be pompousness. Writing a Greek term in Roman letters is not "translation", it's "transliteration" and normally no meaning is lost. archai and chairos still look obviously Greek in both German and English.
– virmaior
2 hours ago
For Kant and Hegel, that was standard convention then. Everyone wrote their quotes in Latin and Greek because education was still largely (and later often) conducted in Latin and Greek in the German speaking world at the time.
– virmaior
2 hours ago
@virmaior: Considering Adorno's writing style in general, pompousness certainly is a good guess. He loved using more 'intellectual' terms and formulations (read: obscure foreign words) up to the point that even though it is 20th century philosophy, it is almost unintelligible even for native contemporary speakers. On the other hand, this is actually the level and language intellectual discourse took place in in Germany in the Golden Twenties, very much unlike MacIntyre growing up in the analytical tradition of "clear and concise" language. You just had to write and understand this style.
– Philip Klöcking♦
1 hour ago
add a comment |
Alasdair MacIntyre is a 20th/21st century philosopher writing in English.
Immanuel Kant was an 18th century philosopher writing in German. G.W.F Hegel was a 19th century philosopher writing in German. Both were trained in theology at different points during their education. For this education, they had to learn biblical Greek.
Adorno was a 20th century philosopher writing in German.
For Kant and Hegel, it was normal practice to write Greek and Latin terms in Greek and Latin respectively, because everyone who had a university education should have been able to read them at least to that level. (university education was not as common in Germany then as it is in the United States now).
Conversely, MacIntyre is a contemporary philosopher writing for an audience where very few people study Greek or could read it fluently.
I'm a bit less clear on why Adorno would do so. I think (and here I am speculating) that the educational requirements in Germany at his Gymnasium have incorporated more expectations for basic knowledge of languages including Greek than they do in the anglosphere where it is now common practice to translate all quotes and transliterate everything not written in the Roman script. For Adorno, there's a lexicon of the Greek terms he uses.
tl;dr - different eras and countries have different practices in the use of foreign terms.
answered 2 hours ago
virmaiorvirmaior
25.1k33995
Alasdair MacIntyre is a 20th/21st century philosopher writing in English.
Immanuel Kant was an 18th century philosopher writing in German. G.W.F Hegel was a 19th century philosopher writing in German. Both were trained in theology at different points during their education. For this education, they had to learn biblical Greek.
Adorno was a 20th century philosopher writing in German.
For Kant and Hegel, it was normal practice to write Greek and Latin terms in Greek and Latin respectively, because everyone who had a university education should have been able to read them at least to that level. (university education was not as common in Germany then as it is in the United States now).
Conversely, MacIntyre is a contemporary philosopher writing for an audience where very few people study Greek or could read it fluently.
I'm a bit less clear on why Adorno would do so. I think (and here I am speculating) that the educational requirements in Germany at his Gymnasium have incorporated more expectations for basic knowledge of languages including Greek than they do in the anglosphere where it is now common practice to translate all quotes and transliterate everything not written in the Roman script. For Adorno, there's a lexicon of the Greek terms he uses.
tl;dr - different eras and countries have different practices in the use of foreign terms.
answered 2 hours ago
virmaiorvirmaior
25.1k33995
answered 2 hours ago
virmaiorvirmaior
25.1k33995
answered 2 hours ago
virmaiorvirmaior
25.1k33995
answered 2 hours ago
virmaiorvirmaior
25.1k33995
25.1k33995
Yet I'm suspicious if it really comes down to conventionalism. Merely saving some time of translation seems superifical to me, since he already used English terminology like 'materialism', which I can only explain if it has similar use as using ancient greek terminology, since it isn't properly translateable. Therefore I suspect a similar reason for using the alphabet.
– LeBerg
2 hours ago
1
If by "he" you mean Adorno, then my own hypothesis would be pompousness. Writing a Greek term in Roman letters is not "translation", it's "transliteration" and normally no meaning is lost. archai and chairos still look obviously Greek in both German and English.
– virmaior
2 hours ago
For Kant and Hegel, that was standard convention then. Everyone wrote their quotes in Latin and Greek because education was still largely (and later often) conducted in Latin and Greek in the German speaking world at the time.
– virmaior
2 hours ago
@virmaior: Considering Adorno's writing style in general, pompousness certainly is a good guess. He loved using more 'intellectual' terms and formulations (read: obscure foreign words) up to the point that even though it is 20th century philosophy, it is almost unintelligible even for native contemporary speakers. On the other hand, this is actually the level and language intellectual discourse took place in in Germany in the Golden Twenties, very much unlike MacIntyre growing up in the analytical tradition of "clear and concise" language. You just had to write and understand this style.
– Philip Klöcking♦
1 hour ago
add a comment |
Yet I'm suspicious if it really comes down to conventionalism. Merely saving some time of translation seems superifical to me, since he already used English terminology like 'materialism', which I can only explain if it has similar use as using ancient greek terminology, since it isn't properly translateable. Therefore I suspect a similar reason for using the alphabet.
– LeBerg
2 hours ago
1
If by "he" you mean Adorno, then my own hypothesis would be pompousness. Writing a Greek term in Roman letters is not "translation", it's "transliteration" and normally no meaning is lost. archai and chairos still look obviously Greek in both German and English.
– virmaior
2 hours ago
For Kant and Hegel, that was standard convention then. Everyone wrote their quotes in Latin and Greek because education was still largely (and later often) conducted in Latin and Greek in the German speaking world at the time.
– virmaior
2 hours ago
@virmaior: Considering Adorno's writing style in general, pompousness certainly is a good guess. He loved using more 'intellectual' terms and formulations (read: obscure foreign words) up to the point that even though it is 20th century philosophy, it is almost unintelligible even for native contemporary speakers. On the other hand, this is actually the level and language intellectual discourse took place in in Germany in the Golden Twenties, very much unlike MacIntyre growing up in the analytical tradition of "clear and concise" language. You just had to write and understand this style.
– Philip Klöcking♦
1 hour ago
Yet I'm suspicious if it really comes down to conventionalism. Merely saving some time of translation seems superifical to me, since he already used English terminology like 'materialism', which I can only explain if it has similar use as using ancient greek terminology, since it isn't properly translateable. Therefore I suspect a similar reason for using the alphabet.
– LeBerg
2 hours ago
Yet I'm suspicious if it really comes down to conventionalism. Merely saving some time of translation seems superifical to me, since he already used English terminology like 'materialism', which I can only explain if it has similar use as using ancient greek terminology, since it isn't properly translateable. Therefore I suspect a similar reason for using the alphabet.
– LeBerg
2 hours ago
1
1
If by "he" you mean Adorno, then my own hypothesis would be pompousness. Writing a Greek term in Roman letters is not "translation", it's "transliteration" and normally no meaning is lost. archai and chairos still look obviously Greek in both German and English.
– virmaior
2 hours ago
If by "he" you mean Adorno, then my own hypothesis would be pompousness. Writing a Greek term in Roman letters is not "translation", it's "transliteration" and normally no meaning is lost. archai and chairos still look obviously Greek in both German and English.
– virmaior
2 hours ago
For Kant and Hegel, that was standard convention then. Everyone wrote their quotes in Latin and Greek because education was still largely (and later often) conducted in Latin and Greek in the German speaking world at the time.
– virmaior
2 hours ago
For Kant and Hegel, that was standard convention then. Everyone wrote their quotes in Latin and Greek because education was still largely (and later often) conducted in Latin and Greek in the German speaking world at the time.
– virmaior
2 hours ago
@virmaior: Considering Adorno's writing style in general, pompousness certainly is a good guess. He loved using more 'intellectual' terms and formulations (read: obscure foreign words) up to the point that even though it is 20th century philosophy, it is almost unintelligible even for native contemporary speakers. On the other hand, this is actually the level and language intellectual discourse took place in in Germany in the Golden Twenties, very much unlike MacIntyre growing up in the analytical tradition of "clear and concise" language. You just had to write and understand this style.
– Philip Klöcking♦
1 hour ago
@virmaior: Considering Adorno's writing style in general, pompousness certainly is a good guess. He loved using more 'intellectual' terms and formulations (read: obscure foreign words) up to the point that even though it is 20th century philosophy, it is almost unintelligible even for native contemporary speakers. On the other hand, this is actually the level and language intellectual discourse took place in in Germany in the Golden Twenties, very much unlike MacIntyre growing up in the analytical tradition of "clear and concise" language. You just had to write and understand this style.
– Philip Klöcking♦
1 hour ago
add a comment |
LeBerg is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
LeBerg is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
LeBerg is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
LeBerg is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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1
Probably because learning proper Greek was part of the curriculum for them. It's likely that Hegel and Kant at least probably read the Greek philosophers in the original language. Adorno was influenced by Hegel.
– Bread
2 hours ago
1
Because the origin of Western philosophy was Ancient Greek, and thus many philosophical concepts originated from Ancient Greek Phil. Obviously, up to last Century, most Western philosophers was trained in Ancient classical culture, Mastering Ancient Greek as well as Latin.
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
2 hours ago
My suspicion is that this is primarily due to different typographical conventions between German and English.
– ig0774
55 mins ago