Why doesn't a braking car move backwards?
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This is going to sound like a stupid question. It sounds stupid in my head. But here goes.
The net force on an object is equal to the mass times the acceleration, $F = ma$
When I brake on a (moving) car, the net force is negative, therefore causing the resulting acceleration to also be negative. This all makes sense, but if the acceleration of the car is negative, why does it not keep moving backward? I know cars in real life come to a stop, but I am having trouble explaining why the car does not continue to accelerate backward while the brakes are applied, with physics, so to speak.
Where is the logic incorrect?
newtonian-mechanics forces kinematics acceleration velocity
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up vote
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This is going to sound like a stupid question. It sounds stupid in my head. But here goes.
The net force on an object is equal to the mass times the acceleration, $F = ma$
When I brake on a (moving) car, the net force is negative, therefore causing the resulting acceleration to also be negative. This all makes sense, but if the acceleration of the car is negative, why does it not keep moving backward? I know cars in real life come to a stop, but I am having trouble explaining why the car does not continue to accelerate backward while the brakes are applied, with physics, so to speak.
Where is the logic incorrect?
newtonian-mechanics forces kinematics acceleration velocity
New contributor
1
The simplest answer is that the brakes only apply an accelerating force to the car's mass while the car is moving.
– A. I. Breveleri
58 mins ago
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
This is going to sound like a stupid question. It sounds stupid in my head. But here goes.
The net force on an object is equal to the mass times the acceleration, $F = ma$
When I brake on a (moving) car, the net force is negative, therefore causing the resulting acceleration to also be negative. This all makes sense, but if the acceleration of the car is negative, why does it not keep moving backward? I know cars in real life come to a stop, but I am having trouble explaining why the car does not continue to accelerate backward while the brakes are applied, with physics, so to speak.
Where is the logic incorrect?
newtonian-mechanics forces kinematics acceleration velocity
New contributor
This is going to sound like a stupid question. It sounds stupid in my head. But here goes.
The net force on an object is equal to the mass times the acceleration, $F = ma$
When I brake on a (moving) car, the net force is negative, therefore causing the resulting acceleration to also be negative. This all makes sense, but if the acceleration of the car is negative, why does it not keep moving backward? I know cars in real life come to a stop, but I am having trouble explaining why the car does not continue to accelerate backward while the brakes are applied, with physics, so to speak.
Where is the logic incorrect?
newtonian-mechanics forces kinematics acceleration velocity
newtonian-mechanics forces kinematics acceleration velocity
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New contributor
edited 1 hour ago
Qmechanic♦
100k121801128
100k121801128
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asked 4 hours ago
Harnoor Lal
1142
1142
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1
The simplest answer is that the brakes only apply an accelerating force to the car's mass while the car is moving.
– A. I. Breveleri
58 mins ago
add a comment |
1
The simplest answer is that the brakes only apply an accelerating force to the car's mass while the car is moving.
– A. I. Breveleri
58 mins ago
1
1
The simplest answer is that the brakes only apply an accelerating force to the car's mass while the car is moving.
– A. I. Breveleri
58 mins ago
The simplest answer is that the brakes only apply an accelerating force to the car's mass while the car is moving.
– A. I. Breveleri
58 mins ago
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
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up vote
6
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A notable property of frictional forces is that they resist motion (as opposed to other types of forces, which might resist displacement, for example, which is how a spring behaves). As a result, the brakes on your car slow down the motion of your wheels that produce forward movement of your car—but they also slow down motion that would produce reverse movement.
If instead you used another type of force-applying mechanicam to slow down your car (e.g., a giant spring), then your car would slow down, then stop, and then start moving backwards.
1
Acceleration is "the rate of change of velocity per unit of time" . It is not a force-applying [mechanism]. +1
– Mazura
2 hours ago
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up vote
5
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Cars move because the wheels are spinning in a certain direction. Brakes work by making the wheels not spin, not by making them spin in the opposite direction.
If instead of slamming the brakes you "brake" a car by having some other kind of force pushing it backwards, like a super huge fan in front of it, then yes, it might begin moving backwards.
1
Here's a gif of brake pads working. May help to visualize it.
– BruceWayne
3 hours ago
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up vote
1
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When you apply the brakes we all know it produces a net force backwards so we all know the resultant force is acting backwards . But when the resultant foce acts backwards it doen ot mean that the object should travel backwards .
At the instant the the brakes are applied the object has a certain velocity , lets take it as V1 ehich is positive assuming the car moves backwards at the the same instant meaning it should have a V2 which is negative. (Note that: velocity is a vector so the direction is really important. ) This situation causes the object to have a infinite decellaration considering the resultant force stays constant .
- Decellartion can never be infinity.
- Once the object has a zero velocity it will never travel backwards because friction is an opposing force when there is motion , Now there is no motion so no friction .Therefore no resultant force resulting in no motion.
Normally a graph for velocity when braking is like this.
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
6
down vote
A notable property of frictional forces is that they resist motion (as opposed to other types of forces, which might resist displacement, for example, which is how a spring behaves). As a result, the brakes on your car slow down the motion of your wheels that produce forward movement of your car—but they also slow down motion that would produce reverse movement.
If instead you used another type of force-applying mechanicam to slow down your car (e.g., a giant spring), then your car would slow down, then stop, and then start moving backwards.
1
Acceleration is "the rate of change of velocity per unit of time" . It is not a force-applying [mechanism]. +1
– Mazura
2 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
6
down vote
A notable property of frictional forces is that they resist motion (as opposed to other types of forces, which might resist displacement, for example, which is how a spring behaves). As a result, the brakes on your car slow down the motion of your wheels that produce forward movement of your car—but they also slow down motion that would produce reverse movement.
If instead you used another type of force-applying mechanicam to slow down your car (e.g., a giant spring), then your car would slow down, then stop, and then start moving backwards.
1
Acceleration is "the rate of change of velocity per unit of time" . It is not a force-applying [mechanism]. +1
– Mazura
2 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
6
down vote
up vote
6
down vote
A notable property of frictional forces is that they resist motion (as opposed to other types of forces, which might resist displacement, for example, which is how a spring behaves). As a result, the brakes on your car slow down the motion of your wheels that produce forward movement of your car—but they also slow down motion that would produce reverse movement.
If instead you used another type of force-applying mechanicam to slow down your car (e.g., a giant spring), then your car would slow down, then stop, and then start moving backwards.
A notable property of frictional forces is that they resist motion (as opposed to other types of forces, which might resist displacement, for example, which is how a spring behaves). As a result, the brakes on your car slow down the motion of your wheels that produce forward movement of your car—but they also slow down motion that would produce reverse movement.
If instead you used another type of force-applying mechanicam to slow down your car (e.g., a giant spring), then your car would slow down, then stop, and then start moving backwards.
answered 4 hours ago
Chemomechanics
3,5812720
3,5812720
1
Acceleration is "the rate of change of velocity per unit of time" . It is not a force-applying [mechanism]. +1
– Mazura
2 hours ago
add a comment |
1
Acceleration is "the rate of change of velocity per unit of time" . It is not a force-applying [mechanism]. +1
– Mazura
2 hours ago
1
1
Acceleration is "the rate of change of velocity per unit of time" . It is not a force-applying [mechanism]. +1
– Mazura
2 hours ago
Acceleration is "the rate of change of velocity per unit of time" . It is not a force-applying [mechanism]. +1
– Mazura
2 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
5
down vote
Cars move because the wheels are spinning in a certain direction. Brakes work by making the wheels not spin, not by making them spin in the opposite direction.
If instead of slamming the brakes you "brake" a car by having some other kind of force pushing it backwards, like a super huge fan in front of it, then yes, it might begin moving backwards.
1
Here's a gif of brake pads working. May help to visualize it.
– BruceWayne
3 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
5
down vote
Cars move because the wheels are spinning in a certain direction. Brakes work by making the wheels not spin, not by making them spin in the opposite direction.
If instead of slamming the brakes you "brake" a car by having some other kind of force pushing it backwards, like a super huge fan in front of it, then yes, it might begin moving backwards.
1
Here's a gif of brake pads working. May help to visualize it.
– BruceWayne
3 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
5
down vote
up vote
5
down vote
Cars move because the wheels are spinning in a certain direction. Brakes work by making the wheels not spin, not by making them spin in the opposite direction.
If instead of slamming the brakes you "brake" a car by having some other kind of force pushing it backwards, like a super huge fan in front of it, then yes, it might begin moving backwards.
Cars move because the wheels are spinning in a certain direction. Brakes work by making the wheels not spin, not by making them spin in the opposite direction.
If instead of slamming the brakes you "brake" a car by having some other kind of force pushing it backwards, like a super huge fan in front of it, then yes, it might begin moving backwards.
answered 4 hours ago
Luciano
712
712
1
Here's a gif of brake pads working. May help to visualize it.
– BruceWayne
3 hours ago
add a comment |
1
Here's a gif of brake pads working. May help to visualize it.
– BruceWayne
3 hours ago
1
1
Here's a gif of brake pads working. May help to visualize it.
– BruceWayne
3 hours ago
Here's a gif of brake pads working. May help to visualize it.
– BruceWayne
3 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
When you apply the brakes we all know it produces a net force backwards so we all know the resultant force is acting backwards . But when the resultant foce acts backwards it doen ot mean that the object should travel backwards .
At the instant the the brakes are applied the object has a certain velocity , lets take it as V1 ehich is positive assuming the car moves backwards at the the same instant meaning it should have a V2 which is negative. (Note that: velocity is a vector so the direction is really important. ) This situation causes the object to have a infinite decellaration considering the resultant force stays constant .
- Decellartion can never be infinity.
- Once the object has a zero velocity it will never travel backwards because friction is an opposing force when there is motion , Now there is no motion so no friction .Therefore no resultant force resulting in no motion.
Normally a graph for velocity when braking is like this.
New contributor
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
When you apply the brakes we all know it produces a net force backwards so we all know the resultant force is acting backwards . But when the resultant foce acts backwards it doen ot mean that the object should travel backwards .
At the instant the the brakes are applied the object has a certain velocity , lets take it as V1 ehich is positive assuming the car moves backwards at the the same instant meaning it should have a V2 which is negative. (Note that: velocity is a vector so the direction is really important. ) This situation causes the object to have a infinite decellaration considering the resultant force stays constant .
- Decellartion can never be infinity.
- Once the object has a zero velocity it will never travel backwards because friction is an opposing force when there is motion , Now there is no motion so no friction .Therefore no resultant force resulting in no motion.
Normally a graph for velocity when braking is like this.
New contributor
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
When you apply the brakes we all know it produces a net force backwards so we all know the resultant force is acting backwards . But when the resultant foce acts backwards it doen ot mean that the object should travel backwards .
At the instant the the brakes are applied the object has a certain velocity , lets take it as V1 ehich is positive assuming the car moves backwards at the the same instant meaning it should have a V2 which is negative. (Note that: velocity is a vector so the direction is really important. ) This situation causes the object to have a infinite decellaration considering the resultant force stays constant .
- Decellartion can never be infinity.
- Once the object has a zero velocity it will never travel backwards because friction is an opposing force when there is motion , Now there is no motion so no friction .Therefore no resultant force resulting in no motion.
Normally a graph for velocity when braking is like this.
New contributor
When you apply the brakes we all know it produces a net force backwards so we all know the resultant force is acting backwards . But when the resultant foce acts backwards it doen ot mean that the object should travel backwards .
At the instant the the brakes are applied the object has a certain velocity , lets take it as V1 ehich is positive assuming the car moves backwards at the the same instant meaning it should have a V2 which is negative. (Note that: velocity is a vector so the direction is really important. ) This situation causes the object to have a infinite decellaration considering the resultant force stays constant .
- Decellartion can never be infinity.
- Once the object has a zero velocity it will never travel backwards because friction is an opposing force when there is motion , Now there is no motion so no friction .Therefore no resultant force resulting in no motion.
Normally a graph for velocity when braking is like this.
New contributor
New contributor
answered 2 hours ago
lasal22
111
111
New contributor
New contributor
add a comment |
add a comment |
Harnoor Lal is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Harnoor Lal is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Harnoor Lal is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Harnoor Lal is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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1
The simplest answer is that the brakes only apply an accelerating force to the car's mass while the car is moving.
– A. I. Breveleri
58 mins ago